1 Which AAA service reduces IT operating costs by providing detailed
reporting and monitoring of network user behavior, and also by keeping a record
of every access connection and device configuration change across the network?
authentication
accreditation
accounting
authorization
2 Which three items are normally included when a log message is generated by a
syslog client and forwarded to a syslog server? (Choose three.)
date and time of
message
ID of sending
device
length of
message
message ID
checksum field
community ID
3 What is the advantage of using WPA to secure a wireless network?
It uses a
128-bit pre-shared hexadecimal key to prevent unauthorized wireless access.
It uses an advanced
encryption key that is never transmitted between host and access point.
It is
supported on older wireless hardware, thus providing maximum compatibility with
enterprise equipment.
It
requires the MAC address of a network device that is requesting wireless access
to be on a list of approved MAC addresses.
4 A company wants to configure a firewall to monitor all channels of
communication and allow only traffic that is part of a known connection. Which
firewall configuration should be deployed?
packet
filtering
proxy
stateful packet inspection
stateless
packet inspection
5 A server log includes this entry: User student accessed host server ABC using
Telnet yesterday for 10 minutes. What type of log entry is this?
authentication
authorization
accounting
accessing
6 What two measures help to verify that server backups have been reliably
completed? (Choose two.)
reviewing backup
logs
performing trial
backups
performing full
backups only
replacing tape
backup with hard disk-based backup
using an
autoloader when backups require more than one tape
7 Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a
network management station with important but unsolicited information?
query
broadcast
ICMP ping
trap
poll
8 Which three protocols are used for in-band management? (Choose three.)
FTP
HTTP
SNMP
Telnet
TFTP
DHCP
9 A hacker has gained access to sensitive network files. In analyzing the
attack, it is found that the hacker gained access over a wireless segment of the
network. It is further discovered that the only security measure in place on the
wireless network is MAC Address Filtering. How is it likely that the hacker
gained access to the network?
The
hacker used a software tool to crack the shared hexadecimal wireless key.
The hacker obtained the MAC
address of a permitted host, and cloned it on his wireless laptop NIC.
The
attacker mounted a denial of service attack to overwhelm the firewall before
penetrating the wireless LAN.
The hacker
gained wireless access to the MAC address database and added his own MAC address
to the list of permitted addresses.
10 A network administrator is assigning network permissions to new groups of
users and employing the principle of least privilege. Which two actions should
the administrator take? (Choose two.)
Provide users
with only the access to resources required to do their jobs.
Provide the
minimum level of permissions required for users to do their jobs.
Remove all
permissions from the users and grant permissions as they are requested.
Allow users to
decide how much permission they need to accomplish their job tasks.
Provide full
access to the users and gradually remove privileges over time.
11 Which three protocols describe methods that can be used to secure user data
for transmission across the internet? (Choose three.)
SMTP
IPSEC
SSL
HTTPS
FTP
TFTP
12 Which benefit does SSH offer over Telnet when remotely managing a router?
encryption
TCP usage
authorization
connection using six VTY lines
13 Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the
network?
network
management station
network
management database
management information base
database
information agent
14 What are two potential problems with using tape media to back up server data?
(Choose two.)
Tape is not a
cost-effective means of backing up data.
Data tapes are
difficult to store offsite.
Data tapes are
prone to failure and must be replaced often.
Tape drives
require regular cleaning to maintain reliability.
Backup logs are
not available with tape backup solutions.
15 What is the term for the public network between the boundary router and the
firewall?
"clean"
LAN
intranet
DMZ
extranet
16 Which two characteristics of network traffic are being monitored if a network
technician configures the company firewall to operate as a packet filter?
(Choose two.)
applications
physical
addresses
packet size
ports
protocols
17 When is the use of out-of-band network management necessary?
when a
server needs to be monitored across the network
when the management interface
of a device is not reachable across the network
when
enhanced monitoring features are required to gain an overall view of the entire
network
when it
is desirable to use the information that is provided by SNMP
18 What network layer security protocol can secure any application layer
protocol used for communication?
HTTPS
IMAP
FTPS
IPSEC
TLS
19 Before a technician upgrades a server, it is necessary to back up all data.
Which type of backup is necessary to ensure that all data is backed up?
daily
differential
full
incremental
partial
20 What AAA component assigns varying levels of rights to users of network
resources?
auditing
accounting
authorization
access
control
authentication
acknowledgement
Rabu, 25 April 2012
CCNA Discovery 2 - Cisco Discovery - DsmbISP Module 7 - V.4 .
Q.1 Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose
two.)
The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI model.
The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actual protocols.
The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.
The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection.
The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers.
Q.2 To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is based on what two factors? (Choose two.)
accessibility
adaptability
availability
reliability
scalability
Q.3 User1 is sending an e-mail to User2@cisco.com. What are two characteristics of the process of sending this data? (Choose two.)
It utilizes TCP port 110.
A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client computers in order to send the e-mail message.
It utilizes a store and forward process.
The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from the destination server.
SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.
Q.4 Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?
Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2.
Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2.
Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2.
Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1.
Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1.
Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.
Q.5 What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.)
Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability.
Reliability is measured as a percent.
Reliability is the responsibility of the ISP customers.
Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.
The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability.
Q.6 Which two statements describe the FTP protocol? (Choose two.)
It uses well-known port 23.
The protocol interpreter is responsible for the data transfer function.
In passive data connections, the FTP client initiates the transfer of data.
It requires two connections between client and server.
FTP servers open a well-known port on the client machine.
Q.7 What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake?
It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination hosts.
It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data.
It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence numbers.
It identifies the destination application on the receiving host.
Q.8 What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.)
It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses.
It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link layers.
It supports authentication.
It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows.
It encrypts packets with SSL.
It requires additional server processing time.
Q.9 Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name?
dynamic lookup
forward lookup
resolution lookup
reverse lookup
Q.10 What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource records with a DNS server whenever changes occur?
dynamic
zone transfer
local recursive query
root domain query
top-level domain query
Q.11 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.)
If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically.
The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10.
If the ping www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Cisco web server IP address before DNS is queried.
The file must be created by the user if it is to be used by a workstation.
Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from DNS.
Q.12 Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.)
maintaining a large number of cached DNS entries
maintaining the ISP server
mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server
forwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet
Q.13 What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.)
connection oriented
full-duplex operation
low overhead
no flow control
no error-recovery function
reliable transmission
Q.14 A manufacturing company is looking into subscribing to services from a new ISP. The company requires hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail services. Which three protocols represent the key application services that are required by the company? (Choose three.)
FTP
HTTP
ICMP
PPP
Telnet
SMTP
Q.15 Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number? (Choose two.)
DNS - 25
FTP - 110
HTTP - 80
POP3 - 25
SMTP - 25
Q.16 Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair?
source port with destination port
source IP address with destination port
source IP address and destination IP address
source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port
Q.17 Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a server to another server?
SNMP
FTP
SMTP
HTTPS
Q.18 Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request?
Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1045
Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1061
Q.19 What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP?
caching-only
root
second-level
top-level
Q.20 A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network. How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client?
The server will apply the default service configured in directory services.
The server will use ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router.
The server will send a request to the client asking for the appropriate service.
The server will determine the appropriate service from the destination port field.
Q.21 When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the same time, which of the following will have the same value for each session? (Choose two.)
IP address
MAC address
session number
sequence number
The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI model.
The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actual protocols.
The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.
The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection.
The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers.
Q.2 To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is based on what two factors? (Choose two.)
accessibility
adaptability
availability
reliability
scalability
Q.3 User1 is sending an e-mail to User2@cisco.com. What are two characteristics of the process of sending this data? (Choose two.)
It utilizes TCP port 110.
A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client computers in order to send the e-mail message.
It utilizes a store and forward process.
The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from the destination server.
SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.
Q.4 Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?
Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2.
Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2.
Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2.
Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1.
Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1.
Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.
Q.5 What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.)
Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability.
Reliability is measured as a percent.
Reliability is the responsibility of the ISP customers.
Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.
The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability.
Q.6 Which two statements describe the FTP protocol? (Choose two.)
It uses well-known port 23.
The protocol interpreter is responsible for the data transfer function.
In passive data connections, the FTP client initiates the transfer of data.
It requires two connections between client and server.
FTP servers open a well-known port on the client machine.
Q.7 What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake?
It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination hosts.
It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data.
It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence numbers.
It identifies the destination application on the receiving host.
Q.8 What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.)
It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses.
It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link layers.
It supports authentication.
It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows.
It encrypts packets with SSL.
It requires additional server processing time.
Q.9 Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name?
dynamic lookup
forward lookup
resolution lookup
reverse lookup
Q.10 What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource records with a DNS server whenever changes occur?
dynamic
zone transfer
local recursive query
root domain query
top-level domain query
Q.11 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.)
If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically.
The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10.
If the ping www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Cisco web server IP address before DNS is queried.
The file must be created by the user if it is to be used by a workstation.
Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from DNS.
Q.12 Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.)
maintaining a large number of cached DNS entries
maintaining the ISP server
mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server
forwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet
Q.13 What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.)
connection oriented
full-duplex operation
low overhead
no flow control
no error-recovery function
reliable transmission
Q.14 A manufacturing company is looking into subscribing to services from a new ISP. The company requires hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail services. Which three protocols represent the key application services that are required by the company? (Choose three.)
FTP
HTTP
ICMP
PPP
Telnet
SMTP
Q.15 Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number? (Choose two.)
DNS - 25
FTP - 110
HTTP - 80
POP3 - 25
SMTP - 25
Q.16 Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair?
source port with destination port
source IP address with destination port
source IP address and destination IP address
source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port
Q.17 Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a server to another server?
SNMP
FTP
SMTP
HTTPS
Q.18 Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request?
Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1045
Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1061
Q.19 What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP?
caching-only
root
second-level
top-level
Q.20 A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network. How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client?
The server will apply the default service configured in directory services.
The server will use ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router.
The server will send a request to the client asking for the appropriate service.
The server will determine the appropriate service from the destination port field.
Q.21 When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the same time, which of the following will have the same value for each session? (Choose two.)
IP address
MAC address
session number
sequence number
Senin, 09 April 2012
CCNA Discovery 2 - Cisco Discovery - DsmbISP Module 6 - V.4 .
Q.1 Which command is used to view the RIP routing protocol settings and
configuration?
show version
show ip route
show interface
show ip protocols
Q.2 Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of RIP routers that could separate HostA and HostB and still leave the hosts with connectivity to each other?
14
15
16
17
Q.3 In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)?
when the company's ISP adds connection points to the Internet
when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork
when more than one interior routing protocol is used
when the company uses two or more ISPs
Q.4 Consider this routing table entry
R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1
What type of route is this?
a static route
a default route
a RIP route
an OSPF route
an EIGRP route
a directly-connected route
Q.5 What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?
Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.
Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.
Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.
Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.
Q.6 What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates?
metric
subnet mask
area identification
hop count
autonomous system number
Q.7 Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs?
BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP v2
Q.8 Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown?
routerA(config-router)# no version 2
routerA(config)# interface fa0/0
routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0
routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway
Q.9 Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available?
in 30 seconds
in 60 seconds
in 90 seconds
Immediately
Q.10 What statement is true regarding an AS number?
AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use.
Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers.
ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers.
All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number.
Q.11 What is the purpose of the network command used when configuring RIP?
to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol
to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers
to identify which networks on the router will send and receive RIP updates
to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP
to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router
Q.12 Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an enterprise have learned about a newly added network?
router# show ip address
router# show ip route
router# show ip networks
router# show ip interface brief
router# debug ip protocol
router# debug rip update
Q.13 What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.
Q.14 What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data?
border gateway router
DSLAM
web server
interior router
Q.15 Which command will display RIP routing updates as they are sent and received?
show ip route
show ip rip
debug ip rip
show ip protocols
show ip rip database
Q.16 Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions?
source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address
Q.17 What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
a home business with one ISP connection
a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs
a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs
a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP
a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP
Q.18 Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
show ip route
show ip interface
show ip protocols
debug ip rip config
show ip rip database
Q.19 Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.
Q.20 Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.)
They are created in interface configuration mode.
They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.
They automatically become the default gateway of the router.
They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S
They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shutdown.
Q.21 Which two statements or sets of statements describe differences between link-state and distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.)
Link-state routing protocols routinely use more bandwidth for updates than do distance vector routing protocols.
Distance vector routing protocols update all routers at one time. Link-state routing protocols update one router at a time.
Link-state routers only know about directly connected routers. Distance vector routers know about every router in the network.
Link-state routing protocols update when a change is made. A network using distance vector routing protocols only updates at a specific interval.
Distance vector routing protocols have limited information about the entire network. Link state routing protocols know about all routers in the network.
In case of similar topologies, networks using link-state routing protocols typically converge more rapidly than do networks using distance vector routing protocols.
Q.22 Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol?
BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP
Q.23 Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
Ping
show arp
Traceroute
show ip route
show interface
show cdp neighbor detail
Q.24 What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority?
Internet
intranet
virtual private network
autonomous system
show version
show ip route
show interface
show ip protocols
Q.2 Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of RIP routers that could separate HostA and HostB and still leave the hosts with connectivity to each other?
14
15
16
17
Q.3 In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)?
when the company's ISP adds connection points to the Internet
when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork
when more than one interior routing protocol is used
when the company uses two or more ISPs
Q.4 Consider this routing table entry
R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1
What type of route is this?
a static route
a default route
a RIP route
an OSPF route
an EIGRP route
a directly-connected route
Q.5 What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?
Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.
Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.
Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.
Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.
Q.6 What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates?
metric
subnet mask
area identification
hop count
autonomous system number
Q.7 Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs?
BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP v2
Q.8 Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown?
routerA(config-router)# no version 2
routerA(config)# interface fa0/0
routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0
routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway
Q.9 Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available?
in 30 seconds
in 60 seconds
in 90 seconds
Immediately
Q.10 What statement is true regarding an AS number?
AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use.
Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers.
ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers.
All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number.
Q.11 What is the purpose of the network command used when configuring RIP?
to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol
to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers
to identify which networks on the router will send and receive RIP updates
to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP
to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router
Q.12 Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an enterprise have learned about a newly added network?
router# show ip address
router# show ip route
router# show ip networks
router# show ip interface brief
router# debug ip protocol
router# debug rip update
Q.13 What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.
Q.14 What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data?
border gateway router
DSLAM
web server
interior router
Q.15 Which command will display RIP routing updates as they are sent and received?
show ip route
show ip rip
debug ip rip
show ip protocols
show ip rip database
Q.16 Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions?
source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address
Q.17 What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
a home business with one ISP connection
a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs
a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs
a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP
a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP
Q.18 Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
show ip route
show ip interface
show ip protocols
debug ip rip config
show ip rip database
Q.19 Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.
Q.20 Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.)
They are created in interface configuration mode.
They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.
They automatically become the default gateway of the router.
They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S
They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shutdown.
Q.21 Which two statements or sets of statements describe differences between link-state and distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.)
Link-state routing protocols routinely use more bandwidth for updates than do distance vector routing protocols.
Distance vector routing protocols update all routers at one time. Link-state routing protocols update one router at a time.
Link-state routers only know about directly connected routers. Distance vector routers know about every router in the network.
Link-state routing protocols update when a change is made. A network using distance vector routing protocols only updates at a specific interval.
Distance vector routing protocols have limited information about the entire network. Link state routing protocols know about all routers in the network.
In case of similar topologies, networks using link-state routing protocols typically converge more rapidly than do networks using distance vector routing protocols.
Q.22 Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol?
BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP
Q.23 Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
Ping
show arp
Traceroute
show ip route
show interface
show cdp neighbor detail
Q.24 What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority?
Internet
intranet
virtual private network
autonomous system
CCNA Discovery 2 - Cisco Discovery - DsmbISP Module 5 - V.4 .
Q.1 In what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.
SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser.
SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices.
SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.
SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration.
Q.2 Which mode will a configured router display at login?
global configuration mode
setup mode
ROM monitor mode
user EXEC mode
Q.3 Refer to the exhibit. Which password or passwords will be encrypted as a result of the configuration that is shown?
virtual terminal only
enable mode only
console and virtual terminal only
enable mode and virtual terminal
only the service password
all configured passwords
Q.4 Refer to the exhibit. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to the Switch1 console over Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.)
Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.66 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch1(config)# line vty 0 4
Switch1(config-line)# enable password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.2.65
Q.5 How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure?
blinks rapidly amber
blinks rapidly green
steady amber
steady green
Q.6 Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254
X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0
Q.7 A technician has made changes to the configuration of a router. What command will allow the technician to view the current configuration before he saves the changes?
router# show running-config
router# show startup-config
router# show flash
router# show version
Q.8 Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
VTY interface
console interface
Ethernet interface
secret EXEC mode
privileged EXEC mode
router configuration mode
Q.9 To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination?
Tab
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-N
Up Arrow
Right Arrow
Down Arrow
Q.10 What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to 'LAB_A'?
Router> enable
Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router# configure router
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router(config)# host name LAB_A
Q.11 Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?
Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop.
Telnet to the switch from the router console.
Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.
The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection to check these settings.
Q.12 Which two options must be selected in SDM Express to enable a router serial interface to obtain an IP address automatically? (Choose two.)
Easy IP (IP negotiated)
IP unnumbered
No IP address
HDLC encapsulation
Frame Relay encapsulation
PPP encapsulation
Q.13 What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.)
host name
DHCP options
domain name
interface IP addresses
enable secret password
DNS server IP addresses
Q.14 Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
Set the command history buffer size.
Recall previously entered commands.
Save command lines in a log file for future reference.
Q.15 What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet?
host name
domain name
DHCP address pool
DNS server IP address
Q.16 Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)
ATM
CHAP
Frame Relay
HDLC
PAP
PPP
Q.17 Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?
Router# show ip interfaces
Router# show ip connections
Router# show ip route
Router# show ip networks
Q.18 A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
console
AUX
Telnet
modem
Q.19 Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
platform
routing protocol
connected interface of neighbor device
device ID
IP addresses of all interfaces
enable mode password
Q.20 Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
transmission of data
reception of data
clocking for the synchronous link
noise cancellation in transmitted data
Q.21 Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
stores the routing table
retains contents when power is removed
stores the startup configuration file
contains the running configuration file
stores the ARP table
Q.22 Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will enable users who are attached to Router1 to access the remote server?
Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
Q.23 A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem?
The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch.
There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.
The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation NIC.
The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch.
Q.24 Which of the following statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)
All router commands are available.
Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
A password can be entered to allow access to other modes.
Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.
Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.
Q.25 Which command turns on a router interface?
Router(config-if)# enable
Router(config-if)# no down
Router(config-if)# s0 active
Router(config-if)# interface up
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.
SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser.
SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices.
SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.
SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration.
Q.2 Which mode will a configured router display at login?
global configuration mode
setup mode
ROM monitor mode
user EXEC mode
Q.3 Refer to the exhibit. Which password or passwords will be encrypted as a result of the configuration that is shown?
virtual terminal only
enable mode only
console and virtual terminal only
enable mode and virtual terminal
only the service password
all configured passwords
Q.4 Refer to the exhibit. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to the Switch1 console over Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.)
Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.66 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch1(config)# line vty 0 4
Switch1(config-line)# enable password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.2.65
Q.5 How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure?
blinks rapidly amber
blinks rapidly green
steady amber
steady green
Q.6 Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254
X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0
Q.7 A technician has made changes to the configuration of a router. What command will allow the technician to view the current configuration before he saves the changes?
router# show running-config
router# show startup-config
router# show flash
router# show version
Q.8 Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
VTY interface
console interface
Ethernet interface
secret EXEC mode
privileged EXEC mode
router configuration mode
Q.9 To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination?
Tab
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-N
Up Arrow
Right Arrow
Down Arrow
Q.10 What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to 'LAB_A'?
Router> enable
Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router# configure router
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router(config)# host name LAB_A
Q.11 Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?
Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop.
Telnet to the switch from the router console.
Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.
The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection to check these settings.
Q.12 Which two options must be selected in SDM Express to enable a router serial interface to obtain an IP address automatically? (Choose two.)
Easy IP (IP negotiated)
IP unnumbered
No IP address
HDLC encapsulation
Frame Relay encapsulation
PPP encapsulation
Q.13 What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.)
host name
DHCP options
domain name
interface IP addresses
enable secret password
DNS server IP addresses
Q.14 Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
Set the command history buffer size.
Recall previously entered commands.
Save command lines in a log file for future reference.
Q.15 What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet?
host name
domain name
DHCP address pool
DNS server IP address
Q.16 Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)
ATM
CHAP
Frame Relay
HDLC
PAP
PPP
Q.17 Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?
Router# show ip interfaces
Router# show ip connections
Router# show ip route
Router# show ip networks
Q.18 A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
console
AUX
Telnet
modem
Q.19 Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
platform
routing protocol
connected interface of neighbor device
device ID
IP addresses of all interfaces
enable mode password
Q.20 Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
transmission of data
reception of data
clocking for the synchronous link
noise cancellation in transmitted data
Q.21 Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
stores the routing table
retains contents when power is removed
stores the startup configuration file
contains the running configuration file
stores the ARP table
Q.22 Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will enable users who are attached to Router1 to access the remote server?
Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
Q.23 A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem?
The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch.
There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.
The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation NIC.
The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch.
Q.24 Which of the following statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)
All router commands are available.
Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
A password can be entered to allow access to other modes.
Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.
Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.
Q.25 Which command turns on a router interface?
Router(config-if)# enable
Router(config-if)# no down
Router(config-if)# s0 active
Router(config-if)# interface up
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
CCNA Discovery 2 - Cisco Discovery - DsmbISP Module 4 - V.4 .
Q.1 In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of
the eight bits?
128
254
255
256
512
1024
Q.2 Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
11110010
11011011
11110110
11100111
11100101
11101110
Q.3 How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
254
255
256
510
511
512
Q.4 Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?
Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address.
A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address.
Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.
Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for communications.
Q.5 Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E
Q.6 Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.
Q.7 Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.
The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.
Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.
Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.
Q.8 Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
6
14
30
62
Q.9 hat is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
192.168.0.0
192.168.0.255
192.168.32.0
192.168.32.254
192.168.32.255
Q.10 Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
Q.11 IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
64
96
128
192
256
512
Q.12 What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
127 to 191
127 to 192
128 to 191
128 to 192
Q.13 Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E
Q.14 refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128
Q.15 Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13
2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13
2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13
2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13
Q.16 What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
to preserve registered public IP addresses
to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks
to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet
to make routing protocols operate more efficiently
to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet
to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers
Q.17 What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?
The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address.
The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address.
The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address.
The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.
Q.18 Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?
255 and below
1024 and below
1025 and above
64,000 and above
Q.19 Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?
inside global
outside local
outside global
private IP address
Q.20 What are three advantages of NAT implementations? (Choose three.)
improved security
improved router performance
decreased processor load
improved scalability
universal application compatibility
sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts
128
254
255
256
512
1024
Q.2 Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
11110010
11011011
11110110
11100111
11100101
11101110
Q.3 How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
254
255
256
510
511
512
Q.4 Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?
Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address.
A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address.
Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.
Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for communications.
Q.5 Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E
Q.6 Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.
Q.7 Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.
The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.
Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.
Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.
Q.8 Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
6
14
30
62
Q.9 hat is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
192.168.0.0
192.168.0.255
192.168.32.0
192.168.32.254
192.168.32.255
Q.10 Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
Q.11 IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
64
96
128
192
256
512
Q.12 What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
127 to 191
127 to 192
128 to 191
128 to 192
Q.13 Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E
Q.14 refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128
Q.15 Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13
2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13
2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13
2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13
Q.16 What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
to preserve registered public IP addresses
to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks
to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet
to make routing protocols operate more efficiently
to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet
to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers
Q.17 What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?
The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address.
The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address.
The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address.
The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.
Q.18 Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?
255 and below
1024 and below
1025 and above
64,000 and above
Q.19 Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?
inside global
outside local
outside global
private IP address
Q.20 What are three advantages of NAT implementations? (Choose three.)
improved security
improved router performance
decreased processor load
improved scalability
universal application compatibility
sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts
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