CCNA Discovery 2 - Cisco Discovery - DsmbISP Module 5 - V.4 .

Q.1 In what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)

SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.
SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser.
SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices.
SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.
SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration.


Q.2 Which mode will a configured router display at login?

global configuration mode
setup mode
ROM monitor mode
user EXEC mode



Q.3 Refer to the exhibit. Which password or passwords will be encrypted as a result of the configuration that is shown?

virtual terminal only
enable mode only
console and virtual terminal only
enable mode and virtual terminal
only the service password
all configured passwords



Q.4 Refer to the exhibit. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to the Switch1 console over Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.)

Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
     Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
     Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.66 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
     Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192
     Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch1(config)# line vty 0 4
     Switch1(config-line)# enable password cisco
     Switch1(config-line)# login
Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15
     Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
     Switch1(config-line)# login
Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.2.65


Q.5 How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure?

blinks rapidly amber
blinks rapidly green
steady amber
steady green



Q.6 Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?

X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254
X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0


Q.7 A technician has made changes to the configuration of a router. What command will allow the technician to view the current configuration before he saves the changes?

router# show running-config
router# show startup-config
router# show flash
router# show version


Q.8 Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)

VTY interface
console interface
Ethernet interface
secret EXEC mode
privileged EXEC mode
router configuration mode


Q.9 To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination?

Tab
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-N
Up Arrow
Right Arrow
Down Arrow


Q.10 What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to 'LAB_A'?

Router> enable
     Router# configure terminal
     Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
     Router# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
     Router# configure router
     Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
     Router(config)# host name LAB_A



Q.11 Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?

Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop.
Telnet to the switch from the router console.
Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.
The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection to check these settings.


Q.12 Which two options must be selected in SDM Express to enable a router serial interface to obtain an IP address automatically? (Choose two.)

Easy IP (IP negotiated)
IP unnumbered
No IP address
HDLC encapsulation
Frame Relay encapsulation
PPP encapsulation


Q.13 What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.)

host name
DHCP options
domain name
interface IP addresses
enable secret password
DNS server IP addresses


Q.14 Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)

View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
Set the command history buffer size.
Recall previously entered commands.
Save command lines in a log file for future reference.


Q.15 What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet?

host name
domain name
DHCP address pool
DNS server IP address


Q.16 Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)

ATM
CHAP
Frame Relay
HDLC
PAP
PPP


Q.17 Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?

Router# show ip interfaces
Router# show ip connections
Router# show ip route
Router# show ip networks


Q.18 A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?

console
AUX
Telnet
modem


Q.19 Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)

platform
routing protocol
connected interface of neighbor device
device ID
IP addresses of all interfaces
enable mode password


Q.20 Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?

transmission of data
reception of data
clocking for the synchronous link
noise cancellation in transmitted data


Q.21 Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

stores the routing table
retains contents when power is removed
stores the startup configuration file
contains the running configuration file
stores the ARP table



Q.22 Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will enable users who are attached to Router1 to access the remote server?

Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
     Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
     Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
     Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
     Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252
     Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
     Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252
     Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000
     Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
     Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
     Router1(config-if)# no shutdown


Q.23 A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem?

The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch.
There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.
The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation NIC.
The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch.


Q.24 Which of the following statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)

All router commands are available.
Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
A password can be entered to allow access to other modes.
Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.
Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.


Q.25 Which command turns on a router interface?

Router(config-if)# enable
Router(config-if)# no down
Router(config-if)# s0 active
Router(config-if)# interface up
Router(config-if)# no shutdown

CCNA Discovery 2 - Cisco Discovery - DsmbISP Module 4 - V.4 .

Q.1 In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?

128
254
255
256
512
1024


Q.2 Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

11110010
11011011
11110110
11100111
11100101
11101110


Q.3 How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?

254
255
256
510
511
512


Q.4 Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?

Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address.
A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address.
Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.
Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for communications.


Q.5 Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?

Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E


Q.6 Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?

Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.


Q.7 Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)

It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.
The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.
Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.
Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.


Q.8 Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?

6
14
30
62


Q.9 hat is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?

192.168.0.0
192.168.0.255
192.168.32.0
192.168.32.254
192.168.32.255



Q.10 Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?

The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.


Q.11 IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?

64
96
128
192
256
512


Q.12 What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?

127 to 191
127 to 192
128 to 191
128 to 192


Q.13 Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?

Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E



Q.14 refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?

192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128


Q.15 Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?

2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13
2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13
2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13
2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13


Q.16 What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)

to preserve registered public IP addresses
to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks
to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet
to make routing protocols operate more efficiently
to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet
to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers


Q.17 What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?

The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address.
The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address.
The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address.
The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.


Q.18 Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?

255 and below
1024 and below
1025 and above
64,000 and above


Q.19 Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?

inside global
outside local
outside global
private IP address


Q.20 What are three advantages of NAT implementations? (Choose three.)

improved security
improved router performance
decreased processor load
improved scalability
universal application compatibility
sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts

CCNA Discovery 2 - Cisco Discovery - DsmbISP Module 3 - V.4 .

Q.1 Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.)

faster communication speeds
improved physical security
more resistant to hacker attempts
centralized cable management
less electrical usage


Q.2 Which three issues should be noted on the technician's site survey report? (Choose three.)

unlabeled cables
only two power outlets per wall in each room
poor physical security of network devices
horizontal cabling runs under 100 meters
lack of UPS for critical devices
two users sharing the same computer


Q.3 Which two types of cable are used for initial router configuration? (Choose two.)

serial cable
rollover cable
straight-through cable
crossover cable
patch cable
console cable


Q.4 In addition to the inventory sheet, what other information about the hosts and networking equipment should be documented by the on-site technician while performing the site survey?

any obsolete office equipment being stored
all product keys for site license software
any planned growth anticipated in the near future
the memory requirements for installed application software



Q.5 Refer to the exhibit. What type of device is used to connect two networks?

hub
router
switch
access point


Q.6 It is said that the goal for availability of a communications system is "five-9s". What is meant by this?

A down time of .00001% is unacceptable.
A network needs to be available 99.999% of the time.
Five percent of all network expense covers 99% of user requirements.
The most critical time for network availability is from 9:00 to 5:00 p.m. five days a week.
The best time to do maintenance on a network is from 5:00 p.m. to 9:00 a.m. five days a week.


Q.7 What three things are included in a logical topology document? (Choose three.)

the location of cables, computers, and other peripherals
the path that the data takes through a network
the wireless signal coverage area
the wiring closet and access point locations
the device names and Layer 3 addressing information
the location of routing, network address translation, and firewall filtering


Q.8. Which device has the ability to break up broadcast and collision domains?

repeater
hub
router
switch


Q.9 Why is it important to review the results of an on-site survey report with the customer before beginning the network design?

to inform the customer of how much time the upgrade will take
to discuss the implementation schedule for the new equipment
to verify that the report accurately describes the current network and any plans for expansion
to layout the new network design and discuss possible equipment upgrades and replacements


Q.10 A client requires a networking device that is capable of expansion to suit growing network demands. What type of device will suit this requirement?

a networking device with ports that can be activated and deactivated
a networking device with a modular physical configuration
a networking device with the ability to be turned off remotely
a networking device with a cost per port that is as high as possible


Q.11 What does the use of redundant network components supply to a network?

scalability
manageability
compatibility
reliability


Q.12 What is the benefit for a company to use an ISR router?

An ISR provides the functionality of a switch, router, and firewall in one device.
ISRs use a PC operating system for routing traffic, thus simplifying configuration and management.
An ISR is immune to security attacks by hackers and so replaces all other network security measures.
ISRs make routing decisions at OSI Layer 7, thus providing more intelligence to the network than do other routers.


Q.13 Which three items are typically found in an MDF? (Choose three.)

user workstations
switches and routers
fax machines
network equipment racks
the point of presence
copier


Q.14 What are two advantages of having ISP-managed services? (Choose two.)

does not require leasing costs for service
can guarantee up to 99.999% availability
eliminates the need for data backup
increases availability of help desk services
does not require a Service Level Agreement


Q.15 A manufacturing company is in the process of a network upgrade. Which two statements are true about the phases of the upgrade process? (Choose two.)

Phase 1 is used to determine network requirements.
Phase 2 includes creating an analysis report.
Phase 3 is based on an implementation schedule that allows extra time for unexpected events.
Phase 4 is where prototypes are created and tested.
Phase 5 includes identifying and addressing any weaknesses in the design.


Q.16 When designing a network upgrade, which two tasks should the onsite technician perform? (Choose two.)

configure the servers and routers prior to delivery
upgrade the network operating system and all client operating systems
investigate and document the physical layout of the premises
document the final design for approval by the customer
perform a site survey to document the existing network structure


Q.17 What is the term for the location at the customer premise where the customer network physically connects to the Internet through a telecommunications service provider?

backbone area
point of presence
network distribution facility
intermediate distribution frame



Q.18 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of twisted pair cable is used between each device?

A=console, B=straight, C=crossover, D= crossover, E=straight
A=straight, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=console
A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
A=console, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
A=console, B=crossover, C=crossover, D=straight, E=straight


Q.19 In what two ways will entering into a managed service agreement with an ISP for a network upgrade affect the costs that are incurred by the customer? (Choose two.)

Customer IT training costs will increase to enable operation of the new equipment.
The cost of hardware repairs and support will become the responsibility of the customer.
Network upgrade and maintenance costs will become predictable.
Staffing costs will increase because the customer will need to hire additional IT staff to complete the upgrade.
The company will not need to spend a large amount of money to purchase the equipment upfront.


Q.20 Which type of cable has a solid copper core with several protective layers including PVC, braided wire shielding, and a plastic covering?

STP
UTP
coaxial
fiber optic


Q.21 What must be added when a network expands beyond the coverage area of the current telecommunications room?

MDF
POP
IDF
IXP 

CCNA Discovery 2 - Cisco Discovery - DsmbISP Module 2 - V.4 .

Q.1 Which two functions are provided by the upper layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

placing electrical signals on the medium for transmission
initiating the network communication process
encrypting and compressing data for transmission
segmenting and identifying data for reassembly at the destination
choosing the appropriate path for the data to take through the network


Q.2 Which is a function of the transport layer of the OSI model?

routes data between networks
converts data to bits for transmission
delivers data reliably across the network using TCP
formats and encodes data for transmission
transmits data to the next directly connected device


Q.3 Which common Layer 1 problem can cause a user to lose connectivity?

incorrect subnet mask
incorrect default gateway
loose network cable
NIC improperly installed


Q.4 Which three command line utilities are most commonly used to troubleshoot issues at Layer 3? (Choose three.)

ping
a packet sniffer
Telnet
ipconfig
Traceroute


Q.5 Which address is used by the router to direct a packet between networks?

source MAC address
destination MAC address
source IP address
destination IP address


Q.6 What is the correct encapsulation order when data is passed from Layer 1 up to Layer 4 of the OSI model?

bits, frames, packets, segments
frames, bits, packets, segments
packets, frames, segments, bits
segments, packets, frames, bits


Q.7 What are two goals of the ISP help desk? (Choose two.)

conserving support resources
network optimization
competitive scalability
customer retention
sales of network services


Q.8 In what two ways do Level 1 and Level 2 help desk technicians attempt to solve a customer's problems? (Choose three.)

talking to the customer on the telephone
upgrading hardware and software
using various web tools
making an onsite visit
installing new equipment
with remote desktop sharing applications


Q.9 A customer calls the help desk about setting up a new PC and cable modem and being unable to access the Internet. What three questions would the technician ask if the bottom-up troubleshooting approach is used? (Choose three.)

Is the NIC link light blinking?
What is the IP address and subnet mask?
Can the default gateway be successfully pinged?
Is the network cable properly attached to the modem?
Is the Category 5 cable properly connected to the network slot on the PC?
Can you access your e-mail account?


Q.10 A customer calls to report a problem accessing an e-commerce web site. The help desk technician begins troubleshooting using a top-down approach. Which question would the technician ask the customer first?

Can you access other web sites?
Is there a firewall installed on your computer?
What is your IP address?
Is the link light lit on your NIC card?


Q.11 Which statement describes the process of escalating a help desk trouble ticket?

The help desk technican resolves the customer problem over the phone and closes the trouble ticket.
Remote desktop utilities enable the help desk technician to fix a configuration error and close the trouble ticket.
After trying unsuccessfully to fix a problem, the help desk technician sends the trouble ticket to the onsite support staff.
When the problem is solved, all information is recorded on the trouble ticket for future reference.


Q.12 What are two functions of the physical layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

adding the hardware address
converting data to bits
encapsulating data into frames
signal generation
routing packets


Q.13 A customer calls the ISP help desk after setting up a new PC with a cable modem but being unable to access the Internet. After the help desk technician has verified Layer 1 and Layer 2, what are three questions the help desk technician should ask the customer? (Choose three.)

What is your subnet mask?
What is your IP address?
Is the NIC link light blinking?
Can you ping the default gateway?
Is the network cable properly attached to the cable modem?
Is the network cable correctly connected to the network port on the PC?


Q.14 Which scenario represents a problem at Layer 4 of the OSI model?

An incorrect IP address on the default gateway.
A bad subnet mask in the host IP configuration.
A firewall filtering traffic addressed to TCP port 25 on an email server.
An incorrect DNS server address being given out by DHCP.


Q.15 What are two basic procedures of incident management? (Choose two.)

opening a trouble ticket
using diagnostic tools to identify the problem
surveying network conditions for further analysis
configuring new equipment and software upgrades
adhering to a problem-solving strategy
e-mailing a problem resolution to the customer


Q.16 Which level of support is supplied by an ISP when providing managed services?

Level 1
Level 2
Level 3
Level 4


Q.17 What is the first step that is used by a help desk technician in a systematic approach to helping a customer solve a problem?

identify and prioritize alternative solutions
isolate the cause of the problem
define the problem
select an evaluation process


Q.18 A network technician has isolated a problem at the transport layer of the OSI model. Which question would provide further information about the problem?

Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?
Do you have a link light on your network card?
Is your PC configured to obtain addressing information using DHCP?
What default gateway address is configured in your TCP/IP settings?
Can you ping http://www.cisco.com?


Q.19 An ISP help desk technician receives a call from a customer who reports that no one at their business can reach any websites, or get their e-mail. After testing the communication line and finding everything fine, the technician instructs the customer to run nslookup from the command prompt. What does the technician suspect is causing the customer's problem?

improper IP address configuration on the host
hardware failure of the ISR used to connect the customer to the ISP
bad cables or connections at the customer site
failure of DNS to resolve names to IP addresses


Q.20 Which layers of the OSI model are commonly referred to as the upper layers?

application, presentation, session
application, session, network
presentation, transport, network
presentation, network, data link
session, transport, network

CCNA Discovery 2 - Cisco Discovery - DsmbISP Module 1 - V.4 .

Q.1 Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)

the number of routers between the source and destination device
the IP address of the router nearest the destination device
the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source
whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network
the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond


Q.2 What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used by medium- to large-sized businesses? (Choose three.)

DSL
cable modem
Ethernet
metro Ethernet
T1
T3


Q.3 What is the maximum T1 transmission speed?

56 kbps
128 kbps
1.544 Mbps
2.4 Mbps


Q.4 Which of the following start the test of destination reachability?

echo request issued by source
echo reply issued by source
echo request issued by destination
echo reply issued by destination


Q.5 Which statement describes a function of a Tier 1 ISP?

peers with other similarly sized ISPs to form the global Internet backbone
uses the services of Tier 3 ISPs to connect to the global Internet backbone
pays Tier 2 ISPs for transit services to connect across continents
limits the offered services to small geographic areas


Q.6 At which point do individuals and small businesses connect directly to the ISP network to obtain Internet access?

at a POP
at an IXP
at a Metro Ethernet link
on the ISP extranet


Q.7 What information is contained in the numbered RFCs maintained by the IETF?

the rules for acceptable use of websites and e-mail
the descriptions of various hardware components that connect to the Internet
the specifications and rules for how devices communicate over an IP network
the standards for cabling and wiring for local Ethernet networks


Q.8 Which network support services team is responsible for testing a new customer connection and for monitoring the ongoing operation of the link?"

customer service
help desk
network operations
on-site installation


Q.9 Which network support services team identifies whether the client site has existing network hardware and circuits installed?

customer service
help desk
network operations
planning and provisioning


Q.10 Which ISP network support systems team will typically contact the customer once a new circuit is ready and guide the customer in setting up passwords and other account information?

help desk
customer service
network operations center
on-site installation team
planning and provisioning


Q.11 What feature allows network devices to be scalable?

a fixed number of interfaces
ease of repair
modularity
low maintenance requirements
low cost


Q.12 Which command generated this output?

1 12.0.0.2 4 msec 4 msec 4 msec
2 23.0.0.3 20 msec 16 msec 16 msec
3 34.0.0.4 16 msec 18 msec 16 msec
Router# traceroute 34.0.0.4
Router# nslookup 34.0.0.4
Router# ping 34.0.0.4
Router# telnet 34.0.0.4


Q.13 Which network utility helps determine the location of network problems and identifies routers that packets travel across?

ping
ipconfig
traceroute
ixp


Q.14 What interconnects the Internet backbone?

gateway routers
IXPs
POPs
satellite dishes


Q.15 What units are used to measure Internet bandwidth?

bits per second
bytes per second
hertz
megabytes per second
packets per second


Q.16 The IT manager of a medium-sized business wishes to house the company-owned web servers in a facility that offers round-the-clock controlled access, redundant power, and high-bandwidth Internet access. Which ISP service will fulfill this need?

web hosting
planning and provisioning
application hosting
equipment colocation
Tier 1 ISP services


Q.17 What is the purpose of an RFC?

to provide the connection point for multiple ISPs to the Internet
to document the development and approval of an Internet standard
to connect a business to an ISP
to provide data communication services to ISP customers
to monitor network performance and connection status of ISP clients


Q.18 When did the Internet become available for use by businesses and consumers?

1979
1984
1991
1999
2000


Q.19 What was the original purpose of the Internet?

voice communication
marketing
research
commerce


Q.20 What three support service teams are commonly found within an ISP? (Choose three.)

help desk
computer support
application readiness
network operations center
planning and provisioning
implementation and documentation

Beberapa aplikasi yang tidak ditampilkan pada windows xp

1. Disk Cleanup = cleanmgr.exe
Digunakan untuk cleanup disk

2. Character Map = charmap.exe
Digunakan untuk mencari karakter yang tidak umum
3. Dr Watson = drwtsn32.exe
Digunakan untuk troubleshooting di PC.

4. DirectX diagnosis = dxdiag.exe
Digunakan untuk diagnosis audio video card anda

5. Private character editor = eudcedit.exe
Digunakan untuk membuat karakter baru di windows anda
6. IExpress Wizard = iexpress.exe
Digunakan untuk membuat self-extracting / self-installing package. seperti file Zip
7. Microsoft Synchronization Manager = mobsync.exe
Digunakan untuk membuat sincronisasi.

8. Clipboard Viewer = clipbrd.exe
Digunakan untuk melihat konten dari Windows clipboard
9. Windows Media Player 5.1 = mplay32.exe
Digunakan untuk membuka Windows Media Player versi 5.1

10. ODBC Data Source Administrator = odbcad32.exe
Digunakan untuk keperluan database

11. Object Packager = packager.exe
Digunakan untuk memasukkan objek kedalam file.
12. System Configuration Editor = sysedit.exe
Digunakan untuk mengubah system.ini dan win.ini
13. Syskey = syskey.exe
Digunakan untuk konfigurasi account di windows.

14. Microsoft Telnet Client = telnet.exe
Digunakan untuk melakukan koneksi internet sebelum ada browser.

15. Driver Verifier Manager = verifier.exe
Digunakan untuk monitoring driver di windows anda
16. Windows for Workgroups Chat = winchat.exe
Digunakan untuk chat sec
17. System configuration = msconfig.exe
Digunakan untuk mengontrol program startup

18. System Monitor = perfmon.exe
Digunakan untuk memonitor PC anda.

19. Program Manager = progman.exe
Merupakan warisan dari Windows 3.x desktop shell

20. gpedit.msc
Digunakan untuk mengatur group policy dan otorisasi, apabila Anda menggunakan Active Directory.

21. Remote Access phone book = rasphone.exe
Merupakan aplikasi seperti buku telepon
22. Registry Editor = regedt32.exe (Bisa juga regedit.exe)
Digunakan untuk tweaking dan editing registry windows
23. Network shared folder wizard = shrpubw.exe
Digunakan untuk membuat shared folder dalam jaringan

24. File siganture verification tool = sigverif.exe
Digunakan untuk verifikasi signature

25. Volume Control = sndvol32.exe
Digunakan untuk menampilkan sound control di System Tray


Source

Download IDM (Internet Download Manager) 607 + crack

idm 607

Bagi yang hobi download, pasti sudah tidak asing lagi dengan yang namanya download manager. Sebuah software yang sangat membantu dalam mepercepat proses download. Dari yang berbayar, trial,  sampai yang gratis. Yang gratisan pun tak kalah handal dengan versi yang berbayar. Namun bagi anda yang ingin mendapatkan download manager yang sebenarnya trial/berbayar, disini ada idm versi 607 dan sekaligus crack-nya. Silahkan klik link di bawah ini.
Download idm 607 + crack
Cara instalnya cukup mudah, pertama instal idm 607.exe dulu, kemudian baru di pacth regeditnya, dan idm.exe pada folder crack dicopy ke folder Internet Download Manager di program file. dan selamat menikmati downloadnya.